Section A
Multiple Choice Questions (Q1–Q16)
[16 × 1 = 16 Marks]
Q.01
1 Mark
Which of the following household devices is most suitable to keep cooked food safe for a short period of time?
(A) Refrigerator
(B) Grameen Sheetal
(C) Ice-box
(D) Freezer
Correct Answer: (A) Refrigerator
Detailed Explanation: A domestic refrigerator maintains a controlled low temperature between 1 °C and 5 °C. This low temperature significantly retards bacterial multiplication and inhibits endogenous enzymatic reactions without solidifying cooked dishes, making it ideal for the safe, short-term storage (24 to 72 hours) of cooked curries, boiled milk, and leftovers. In contrast, a Freezer operates below 0 °C (used for long-term frozen food preservation), while a Grameen Sheetal (evaporative pot-in-pot cooler) is suitable primarily for raw fruits and vegetables, not perishable cooked dishes.
Q.02
1 Mark
Which of the following constitute fundamental principles of food preservation?
(i) Killing micro-organisms (ii) Keeping food covered (iii) Inactivating enzymes (iv) Increasing moisture content
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Correct Answer: (C) (i) and (iii)
Detailed Explanation: The core scientific principles governing food preservation are:
1. Destruction of spoilage micro-organisms through thermal processing, pasteurization, or radiation (statement i).
2. Inactivation of food enzymes through blanching and heating (statement iii).
3. Removal or reduction of moisture (dehydration, osmophilic concentration with sugar/salt), because moisture supports microbial growth; therefore, increasing moisture (statement iv) induces spoilage rather than preventing it.
Q.03
1 Mark
The state of health of a person which is influenced by the intake and biological utilisation of nutrients in the body is termed as:
(A) Malnutrition
(B) Nutritional status
(C) Balanced nutrition
(D) Over nutrition
Correct Answer: (B) Nutritional status
Detailed Explanation: Nutritional status is defined as the physiological condition of an individual resulting from the relationship between dietary nutrient intake, absorption, internal assimilation, and cellular metabolic requirements. It can be assessed using anthropometry, biochemical tests, clinical signs, and dietary surveys. If this status is impaired, it manifests as malnutrition (either undernutrition or overnutrition).
Q.04
1 Mark
Which of the following are direct benefits of maintaining regular income–expenditure records?
(i) Knowing the exact flow of expenditure (ii) Spending money without restraint (iii) Comparing spending across months (iv) Guaranteeing an immediate rise in income
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Correct Answer: (C) (i) and (iii)
Detailed Explanation: Keeping financial accounts provides accurate visibility into where family funds are going, helps identify wasteful or unplanned expenses, and enables month-to-month comparative evaluation to refine the household budget and boost savings. It does not provide a guarantee of increased income, nor does it encourage undisciplined spending.
Q.05
1 Mark
When adolescent groups develop their own distinct style of talking, dressing, and socializing, it is recognized as:
(A) Generation Gap
(B) Peer Group Culture
(C) Social Rebellion
(D) Identity Crisis
Correct Answer: (B) Peer Group Culture
Detailed Explanation: Peer group culture consists of the shared subcultural codes, slang, musical tastes, grooming habits, and clothing styles developed by adolescents to establish mutual belonging, social solidarity, and emotional autonomy from adult authority.
Q.06
1 Mark
In home management, keeping rarely used items on top shelves, lofts, or hard-to-reach spaces is known as:
(A) Functional Storage
(B) Dead Storage
(C) Sequential Storage
(D) Built-in Storage
Correct Answer: (B) Dead Storage
Detailed Explanation: Dead storage refers to designated areas (such as high lofts, overhead kitchen cupboards, attic shelves, or under-bed trunks) used for storing articles required only occasionally (e.g., seasonal quilts, travel suitcases, festival decorations). In contrast, live or active storage is reserved for everyday articles kept within comfortable reach.
Q.07
1 Mark
How many permanent teeth typically erupt in a child by the end of middle childhood (around 11–12 years)?
(A) 20
(B) 24
(C) 28
(D) 32
Correct Answer: (C) 28
Detailed Explanation: By the close of middle childhood (~12 years of age), all 20 primary (milk) teeth are shed and replaced by 28 permanent teeth (8 incisors, 4 canines, 8 premolars, and 8 molars). The remaining 4 molars (wisdom teeth) typically erupt later, between 17 and 25 years of age, completing the full adult set of 32.
Q.08
1 Mark
Which of the following is an essential characteristic of a nutritionally balanced diet?
(A) Includes foods from diverse groups, combining plant and animal sources
(B) Consists primarily of expensive and exotic food items
(C) Contains foods chosen from any two food groups only
(D) Relies solely on non-seasonal preserved food products
Correct Answer: (A) Includes foods from diverse groups, combining plant and animal sources
Detailed Explanation: A balanced diet contains adequate proportions of carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, water, and roughage. Incorporating both plant sources (cereals, pulses, green vegetables) and animal/dairy products ensures mutual amino acid supplementation (e.g., cereals deficient in lysine combined with pulses deficient in methionine) and high bioavailability of micronutrients like vitamin B12, iron, and calcium.
Q.09
1 Mark
When a 10-year-old child recognizes that pouring juice from a tall, thin glass into a short, wide bowl does not change the quantity of juice, the child has achieved:
(A) Empathy
(B) Seriation
(C) Conservation
(D) Egocentrism
Correct Answer: (C) Conservation
Detailed Explanation: According to Jean Piaget's cognitive theory, conservation is the ability to understand that fundamental physical properties (such as volume, mass, or number) remain identical despite perceptual transformations in container shape. Children develop this during the Concrete Operational Stage (ages 7 to 11), overcoming the pre-operational error of centration.
Q.10
1 Mark
A 2-year-old child presents with extreme emaciation, loose wrinkled skin, shrunken stomach, and a withered "old man" appearance. This child is suffering from:
(A) Kwashiorkor
(B) Marasmus
(C) Anaemia
(D) Goitre
Correct Answer: (B) Marasmus
Detailed Explanation: Marasmus is a severe manifestation of Protein-Energy Malnutrition (PEM) caused by a combined deficiency of total calories and protein. The body catabolizes its own muscle and subcutaneous adipose tissue, producing a withered look, prominent ribs, loose folded skin ("baggy pants" sign), and a shrunken abdomen. By contrast, Kwashiorkor (pure protein deficiency with adequate carbohydrates) is marked by edema (swelling of feet and hands), moon face, and a distended potbelly.
Q.11
1 Mark
Which of the following textile fibres loses a significant portion of its tensile strength and becomes weaker when wet?
(A) Cotton
(B) Nylon
(C) Silk
(D) Polyester
Correct Answer: (C) Silk
Detailed Explanation: Silk (as well as wool) is a natural protein fibre. In the presence of water, the hydrogen bonds between polypeptide chains weaken, resulting in a loss of approximately 15% to 20% of its tensile strength. Therefore, silk requires delicate handling, kneeling, and gentle squeezing rather than aggressive wringing. In sharp contrast, Cotton actually gains 10% to 20% tensile strength when wet due to increased internal crystallization and hydrogen bonding, allowing it to withstand vigorous scrubbing.
Q.12
1 Mark
Which of the following is a widespread myth and NOT a valid route for the transmission of HIV?
(A) Sharing contaminated unsterilized injection needles
(B) Transfusion of infected blood products
(C) Shaking hands, hugging, or social kissing
(D) Unprotected sexual intercourse with an infected person
Correct Answer: (C) Shaking hands, hugging, or social kissing
Detailed Explanation: HIV is transmitted exclusively via exchange of specific body fluids: blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk (mother-to-child). It cannot survive outside the human body and is not spread through everyday social interactions like hugging, sharing food, sneezing, touching toilet seats, or mosquito bites.
Q.13
1 Mark
What is the most crucial practical reason for sorting clothes prior to laundering?
(A) To minimize the time required for drying
(B) To prevent colour bleeding, cross-staining, and fabric abrasion
(C) To reduce the total amount of water and detergent used
(D) To make clothes easier to press with an iron
Correct Answer: (B) To prevent colour bleeding, cross-staining, and fabric abrasion
Detailed Explanation: Sorting laundry by color (whites vs. coloreds), fabric delicacy (delicate silks and woolens vs. sturdy cottons), and degree of soiling ensures that fugitive dyes do not stain whites, heavy items do not abrade delicate weaves, and appropriate water temperatures and wash actions are chosen.
Optional Module A — Housekeeping (Q14A–Q16A)
Q.14(A)
1 Mark
In a toilet flushing cistern, if the ball valve fails to rise as the water level climbs, the most probable defect is:
(A) The main water supply inlet is completely blocked
(B) The float ball is punctured, cracked, or corroded, letting water inside
(C) The rubber siphon washer needs replacement
(D) Water pressure from the overhead tank is too low
Correct Answer: (B) The float ball is punctured, cracked, or corroded, letting water inside
Detailed Explanation: The hollow floating ball operates a brass lever mechanism that closes the inlet valve once water reaches the set line. If the float ball is punctured or cracked, water seeps into its interior, destroying its buoyancy. The heavy ball sinks, failing to lift the lever arm, which leaves the inlet valve open and leads to continuous overflow into the toilet bowl.
Q.15(A)
1 Mark
What distinct advantage does floral foam ('Oasis') offer over a traditional metal pin-holder (kenzan) for beginners in flower arrangement?
(A) It adds an attractive visible decorative colour to the arrangement
(B) It provides versatile support, holding stems securely at any desired angle
(C) It is reusable infinitely and never needs replacement
(D) It dispenses with the need for any water in the container
Correct Answer: (B) It provides versatile support, holding stems securely at any desired angle
Detailed Explanation: Water-soaked floral foam ('Oasis') is light, pliable, and easily cut to fit any container shape. It holds thin or thick floral stems firmly at any 3-dimensional angle, preventing them from shifting or collapsing, whereas pin-holders require greater balancing skill and floral wire mechanics.
Q.16(A)
1 Mark
The primary hygienic objective of carrying out regular cleaning and sanitizing in a home is to:
(A) Maintain a display that impresses visitors
(B) Prevent pest infestation, eliminate pathogens, and protect health
(C) Provide an opportunity to frequently rearrange furniture
(D) Mask bad household odors with synthetic fragrances
Correct Answer: (B) Prevent pest infestation, eliminate pathogens, and protect health
Detailed Explanation: Beyond aesthetic appeal, regular cleaning removes dust, food debris, greasy films, and moisture. These residues provide breeding grounds for pests (cockroaches, flies, rodents) and disease-causing pathogens (bacteria, fungi, allergens), protecting the physical health and safety of family members.
Optional Module B — Creative Hand Embroidery (Q14B–Q16B)
Q.14(B)
1 Mark
Which style of embroidery design is most appealing and developmentally appropriate for young children's clothing?
(A) Abstract
(B) Naturalized
(C) Geometrical
(D) Stylized
Correct Answer: (B) Naturalized
Detailed Explanation: Naturalized designs represent recognizable motifs drawn from real life—such as cute animals (rabbits, ducks), flowers, birds, and toys—in a realistic or pictorial form. Children readily identify with and enjoy these concrete, friendly shapes over complex geometric or abstract patterns.
Q.15(B)
1 Mark
In color theory and design, the dimension that specifies the lightness or darkness of a color is known as its:
(A) Hue
(B) Value
(C) Intensity
(D) Texture
Correct Answer: (B) Value
Detailed Explanation: Value describes how light or dark a color is. Adding white to a pure hue raises its value, producing a tint (e.g., pink), while adding black lowers its value, producing a shade (e.g., maroon). Hue is the pure name of the color family (e.g., red, blue), while intensity (chroma) measures its brightness or dullness.
Q.16(B)
1 Mark
Which basic embroidery stitch is worked from top to bottom, creating a connected series of interlocking loops on the fabric surface?
(A) Satin stitch
(B) Cross stitch
(C) Chain stitch
(D) Herringbone stitch
Correct Answer: (C) Chain stitch
Detailed Explanation: Chain stitch is an outline or filling looped stitch. The needle emerges on the design line, the working thread forms a loop, and the needle is re-inserted into or adjacent to the original exit point, bringing the tip up a short distance ahead over the thread loop. This creates an interconnected chain-like pattern.
Section A
Objective Questions (Q17–Q28)
[12 × 2 = 24 Marks]
Q.17
2 Marks
Study the food preservation method below: Fresh raw mango pieces are cut, dried briefly, coated with salt and ground spices, packed tightly into a clean glass jar, and topped with a layer of mustard oil. Identify this preservation method and state two distinct functions of oil in it.
Name of Preservation Method: Oil Pickling / Preservation by Chemical Preservatives and Oil Layering [1 Mark]
Two Distinct Functions of Oil: [1/2 + 1/2 = 1 Mark]
- Forms an Anaerobic Seal: The oil floats to the top, creating a continuous airtight barrier that prevents atmospheric oxygen from contacting the pickled ingredients. This suppresses the growth of aerobic molds, yeasts, and bacteria.
- Flavor Carrier and Desiccation Barrier: Oil extracts and distributes the fat-soluble flavor compounds from spices throughout the fruit pieces, keeping them tender while preventing excessive dehydration and enzymatic discoloration.
Q.18
2 Marks
Classify each of the following family resource items as: Money Income (MI), Real Income (RI), Need (N), or Desire/Want (D):
(i) Free company petrol coupon provided to an employee (ii) Purchasing a gaming console (iii) Quarterly interest credited on a fixed deposit (iv) Prescription medicines for a sick family member
(i) Free petrol coupon: Real Income (RI) — An indirect real income benefit providing material goods without cash outlay.
(ii) Video gaming console: Desire / Want (D) — A non-essential luxury item fulfilling leisure/entertainment preferences.
(iii) Interest on Fixed Deposit: Money Income (MI) — Purchasing power received directly in currency.
(iv) Prescription medicines: Need (N) — A fundamental necessity vital for health and survival.
Q.19
2 Marks
State two essential safe-motherhood recommendations regarding age and pregnancy spacing, along with the scientific rationale for each.
1. Optimal Age for Childbearing (Between 20 and 35 Years): [1 Mark]
Rationale: Pregnancies under 18 carry higher risks of pregnancy-induced hypertension (pre-eclampsia), obstructed labor due to an immature pelvic structure, low-birth-weight babies, and maternal mortality. Pregnancies above 35 years carry increased incidence of chromosomal abnormalities (e.g., Down syndrome), gestational diabetes, and miscarriage.
2. Inter-Pregnancy Spacing (Minimum Gap of 2 to 3 Years): [1 Mark]
Rationale: A spacing of at least 2 to 3 years allows the mother's body to replenish drained nutrient stores (particularly iron, calcium, and protein) and let reproductive organs heal, while ensuring the older child receives dedicated breastfeeding, care, and attention.
Q.20
2 Marks
Priya always arrives at her office 10 minutes before schedule, greets colleagues and clients courteously, strictly complies with all safety protocols in her laboratory, and never discloses sensitive company records to outsiders. Identify the four professional work ethics reflected in her behavior.
Four Work Ethics Identified: [1/2 × 4 = 2 Marks]
- Punctuality and Regularity: Demonstrated by arriving ahead of time and respecting organizational commitments.
- Courtesy and Professional Politeness: Demonstrated by respectful, polite interactions with peers and clients.
- Safety Consciousness / Compliance: Adhering to laboratory safety norms to prevent accidents and protect health.
- Confidentiality and Professional Integrity: Safely guarding proprietary information and maintaining organizational trust.
Q.21
2 Marks
A 4-year-old child claims that two identical lumps of clay have different amounts of clay once one is rolled out into a snake. Meanwhile, a 10-year-old child points out that if Stick A is longer than Stick B, and Stick B is longer than Stick C, then Stick A must be longer than Stick C. Identify and explain the cognitive stage and capability displayed by each child according to Piaget.
(i) 4-Year-Old Child: Pre-Operational Stage (Centration & Lack of Conservation) [1 Mark]
The child exhibits centration—focusing only on the perceptual length of the clay snake while ignoring its reduced thickness. The child has not yet acquired mental reversibility or the principle of conservation of mass.
(ii) 10-Year-Old Child: Concrete Operational Stage (Transitive Inference & Seriation) [1 Mark]
The child demonstrates transitive inference (logical deduction: if Stick A is greater than Stick B, and Stick B is greater than Stick C, then Stick A is greater than Stick C). The child uses logical mental operations on concrete objects rather than relying solely on visual appearances.
Q.22
2 Marks
Distinguish between the Warp and Weft yarns in a woven textile fabric in terms of direction and characteristics, and describe how they run relative to the fabric selvedge.
| Feature |
Warp Yarns (Lengthwise) [1 Mark] |
Weft Yarns (Crosswise / Filling) [1 Mark] |
| Direction |
Runs vertically, parallel to the selvedge edges. |
Runs horizontally, perpendicular (at 90 degrees) to selvedge. |
| Yarn Tension & Strength |
Kept under high mechanical tension on the loom; usually stronger, finer, and with higher twist. |
Inserted back and forth across warp shed; softer, lower twist, often decorative or textured. |
Selvedge | [Warp ↓] [Warp ↓] [Warp ↓] | Selvedge
=================================== ← Weft (Filling yarn →)
Q.23
2 Marks
Provide one precise technical term for each of the following health conditions:
(i) Excessive intake of calorie-dense energy foods leading to abnormal accumulation of adipose fat.
(ii) A state of physical impairment resulting from a deficiency, excess, or imbalance of essential nutrients.
(i) Overnutrition / Nutritional Obesity: [1 Mark] Occurs when energy intake consistently exceeds the body's daily metabolic expenditure, leading to excessive lipid storage in adipose tissues.
(ii) Malnutrition: [1 Mark] An umbrella pathological condition encompassing undernutrition (wasting, stunting), micronutrient deficiencies, or overnutrition.
Q.24
2 Marks
State whether each of the following statements is True (T) or False (F) with a brief reason:
(i) The leftover digested slurry from a biogas plant is worthless toxic waste.
(ii) Finishing interior walls and ceilings with light-reflective paint colors reduces lighting electricity bills.
(iii) A box-type solar cooker requires constant manual stirring to prevent scorching.
(iv) Using tools with improper mechanical gear ratios or un-ergonomic handles reduces worker productivity and increases physical fatigue.
(i) False (F): [1/2 Mark] Biogas slurry is rich in nitrogen, phosphorus, and organic humus; it serves as safe, weed-seed-free organic manure.
(ii) True (T): [1/2 Mark] Light-colored walls possess a high reflection factor (albedo), maximizing natural daylight and ambient artificial light distribution.
(iii) False (F): [1/2 Mark] Box solar cookers provide gentle, indirect, and uniform heat; food does not burn or boil over, requiring zero stirring.
(iv) True (T): [1/2 Mark] Poor ergonomic design forces awkward postures and uneven muscle loading, elevating energy expenditure and accelerating fatigue.
Q.25
2 Marks
Identify the specific laundry finishing or cleaning agent described in each case below (A, B, C, D):
Agent A: Absorbs invisible UV radiation and re-emits visible bluish light to make white fabrics look brighter.
Agent B: A blue pigment/dye added to final rinse water to neutralize the yellowish tinge of white cottons.
Agent C: A biological formulation that breaks down protein and gravy stains at moderate wash temperatures.
Agent D: A carbohydrate compound obtained from rice or maize used to impart stiffness and body to cotton fabric.
Agent A: Optical Brightener / Fluorescent Whitening Agent (FWA) [1/2 Mark]
Agent B: Bluing Agent / Laundry Blue (Ultramarine Blue / Liquid Blue) [1/2 Mark]
Agent C: Enzyme Detergent / Enzymatic Stain Remover (Protease/Amylase) [1/2 Mark]
Agent D: Starching Agent / Laundry Starch (Rice or Corn Starch) [1/2 Mark]
Q.26
2 Marks
Compare the suitability of Cotton and Wool for making a summer shirt versus a winter sweater on the basis of their heat conductivity, moisture absorbency, and tactile comfort.
| Property |
Cotton (Summer Clothing) [1 Mark] |
Wool (Winter Sweater) [1 Mark] |
| Heat Conductivity |
High thermal conductivity; allows body heat to dissipate rapidly, keeping the wearer cool. |
Poor thermal conductivity; natural crimp traps dead air spaces that act as thermal insulation. |
| Moisture Absorbency |
Hydrophilic; readily absorbs skin perspiration and cools via evaporation. |
Hygroscopic; absorbs moisture vapor without feeling damp, retaining insulating warmth. |
Q.27
2 Marks
Name four financial savings or investment avenues that offer high liquidity (easy conversion into cash without significant loss of capital or time).
Four Highly Liquid Investment Schemes: [1/2 × 4 = 2 Marks]
- Savings Bank Account (SB A/c): Instant cash access anytime via ATM cards, cheques, UPI, and online banking.
- Post Office Savings Account: Government-backed savings account allowing on-demand cash withdrawal at any post office counter.
- Liquid Mutual Funds / Overnight Funds: Short-term debt instruments that permit redemption within 24 hours without significant exit penalties.
- Flexi-Fixed Deposit / Sweep-in FD: Automatic link between savings account and term deposits providing liquidity during emergency fund shortages.
Q.28(A)
Module A • 2 Marks
In flower arrangement, state the two crucial preparatory steps that must be performed between collecting fresh flowers from a garden and inserting them into the final vase mechanics.
1. Conditioning of Stems: [1 Mark]
Cut flower stem bases diagonally under running water (to prevent air bubbles from blocking xylem vessels), strip away leaves that would sit below the container waterline, and immerse stems deep in cool water in a dark, draft-free room for 2 to 4 hours so cells regain turgidity.
2. Preparing Container Mechanics and Securing Support: [1 Mark]
Soak floral foam ('Oasis') fully in clean water, trim it neatly to fit the container, and secure it with waterproof florists' adhesive tape or anchor a metal pin-holder (kenzan) securely to the base with modeling clay.
Q.28(B)
Module B • 2 Marks
Identify the two hand embroidery stitches described below and specify the primary decorative function of each:
Stitch (i): Straight, flat stitches laid closely parallel to one another without gaps or overlaps, completely covering the enclosed base motif.
Stitch (ii): Cross-like stitches worked back and forth between two parallel lines, producing a criss-cross pattern on the front and two parallel rows of small straight stitches on the reverse.
(i) Satin Stitch: [1 Mark] A solid flat filling stitch used to fill small floral petals, leaves, and geometric motifs, yielding a smooth, lustrous, satin-like surface.
(ii) Herringbone Stitch: [1 Mark] A versatile border and hem-finishing stitch used for decorative bands, filling foliage, and creating shadow work on sheer fabrics (like organdy or chiffon).
Section B
Very Short Answer Questions (Q29–Q37)
[9 × 2 = 18 Marks]
Q.29
2 Marks
(i) Explain what ethics deal with and why they are essential in personal and professional life.
OR
(ii) State two general ethical principles that every professional must observe at the workplace.
Option (i) Solution:
Definition & Scope of Ethics: Ethics are the moral principles, standards, and values that guide individuals and groups in distinguishing between right and wrong, just and unjust, acceptable and harmful conduct. [1 Mark]
Significance: Ethics establish mutual trust, accountability, and respect. In professional life, they prevent exploitation, fraud, and corruption, ensuring healthy, harmonious working environments. [1 Mark]
Option (ii) Solution:
- Honesty and Truthfulness: Providing accurate information, rejecting deceptive shortcuts, acknowledging errors, and dealing fairly with colleagues, management, and consumers. [1 Mark]
- Integrity and Impartiality: Fulfilling obligations reliably without discrimination, favoritism, or conflicts of interest, and keeping professional commitments. [1 Mark]
Q.30
2 Marks
(i) Enlist the Five Basic Food Groups recommended by ICMR-NIN for balanced diet planning.
OR
(ii) Define a therapeutic diet and give two distinct clinical examples of dietary modification.
Option (i) Solution: Five Basic Food Groups (ICMR): [2 Marks]
- Cereals, Grains, and Millets: (Rice, wheat, ragi, bajra) — Major sources of energy (carbohydrates), dietary fiber, and B-complex vitamins.
- Pulses and Legumes: (Bengal gram, lentils, beans, soy) — Primary sources of plant proteins and dietary minerals.
- Milk and Animal Products: (Milk, curd, paneer, eggs, fish, meat) — Complete high-biological-value protein, calcium, vitamin A, and vitamin B12.
- Fruits and Vegetables: (Green leafy vegetables, yellow/orange fruits, others) — Vitamins (A, C, folate), minerals, antioxidants, and roughage.
- Fats, Oils, and Sugars: (Vegetable oils, ghee, butter, jaggery, sugar) — Concentrated calories and essential fatty acids.
Option (ii) Solution: Therapeutic Diet: [2 Marks]
Definition: A therapeutic diet is a qualitative or quantitative modification of a standard normal diet adapted to fulfill the medical, clinical, and physiological requirements of a patient suffering from a specific disease condition. [1 Mark]
Two Clinical Examples: [1/2 + 1/2 = 1 Mark]
- Low-Sodium Diet: Restricting table salt for patients suffering from hypertension or congestive heart failure.
- Low-Glycemic, High-Fiber Diet: Regulating refined carbohydrates and emphasizing complex fiber for managing diabetes mellitus.
Q.31
2 Marks
Describe the step-by-step scientific method to freeze fresh green peas at home so that their color, taste, and nutrients are preserved for several months.
Scientific Steps for Freezing Fresh Peas: [2 Marks]
- Shelling and Sorting: Select fresh, tender, bright green sweet garden peas. Discard hard, starchy, or damaged seeds and wash thoroughly in cold water. [1/2 Mark]
- Blanching (Crucial Step): Immerse peas in rapidly boiling water for 1.5 to 2 minutes. Blanching inactivates enzymes (such as catalase and peroxidase) that otherwise cause tough skins, nutrient degradation, and off-flavors during freezing. [1/2 Mark]
- Ice-Water Shocking: Transfer blanched peas immediately into ice-cold water (0 °C to 4 °C) for 2 minutes to halt the cooking process. [1/2 Mark]
- Draining and Deep Freezing: Drain on clean towels, pack into moisture-vapor-proof polythene bags, expel excess air, seal airtight, and store in the deep freezer at -18 °C or below. [1/2 Mark]
Q.32
2 Marks
(i) A person finds it difficult to see in dim light and evening hours. Identify the deficiency disorder and recommend three specific rich food sources.
OR
(ii) An adolescent girl feels chronically tired, looks pale, and experiences breathlessness after climbing stairs. Identify her nutritional condition and suggest dietary measures to cure it.
Option (i) Solution: Night Blindness (Nyctalopia): [2 Marks]
Nutrient Deficiency: Vitamin A (Retinol) deficiency, which impairs the resynthesis of rhodopsin pigment in retinal rod cells. [1 Mark]
Three Rich Food Sources: [1 Mark]
- Plant Sources (Beta-carotene): Carrots, dark green leafy vegetables (spinach, methi), ripe papaya, and mango.
- Animal Sources (Retinol): Whole milk, egg yolks, butter, and fish liver oils.
Option (ii) Solution: Iron Deficiency Anaemia (IDA): [2 Marks]
Condition: Nutritional Anaemia (Iron Deficiency), causing low blood hemoglobin and reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. [1 Mark]
Dietary Corrective Measures: [1 Mark]
- Consume iron-rich foods: Green leafy vegetables (sarson, bathua), jaggery, dates, raisins, roasted chana, and beans.
- Pair with Vitamin C (amla, guava, lemon) to enhance non-heme iron absorption. Avoid drinking tea/coffee immediately after meals, as tannins inhibit iron absorption.
Q.33
2 Marks
Accidental oily vegetable curry has spilled on a white cotton dress. State two immediate first-aid steps that should be taken to prevent the stain from becoming permanent.
Two Immediate Stain Removal Steps: [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]
- Blot Immediately and Flush with Cold Water: Gently blot the greasy excess with a clean tissue or blunt scraper without rubbing (rubbing spreads turmeric pigment deeper into the fibers). Hold the reverse side under cold running water to push the curry particles outward. [1 Mark]
- Apply Detergent and Sun Bleach (Avoid Alkaline Soap Initially): Rub a few drops of liquid detergent or paste of detergent powder onto the stain, rinse, and expose the wet fabric to direct sunlight. Natural sunlight photochemically bleaches turmeric (curcumin). Note: Avoid applying high-alkaline laundry soap bar directly onto fresh turmeric, as alkali reacts with curcumin to produce an indelible rust-red stain. [1 Mark]
Q.34
2 Marks
Suggest an eco-friendly method for disposing of fallen dry garden leaves and vegetable kitchen scraps, and state two benefits of this practice.
Recommended Method: Aerobic Composting or Vermicomposting [1 Mark]
Layer biodegradable wet kitchen waste (vegetable peels, leftover food, fruit scraps) with dry leaves in a compost pit or compost bin with earthworms (Eisenia fetida).
Two Distinct Benefits: [1/2 + 1/2 = 1 Mark]
- Environmental Protection: Diverts organic waste away from open landfills, curbing greenhouse gas (methane) emissions and stopping toxic open-air smoke caused by burning dry leaves.
- Soil Enrichment: Produces rich, dark humus (compost) with high nitrogen, phosphorus, and microbial content, improving garden soil structure without expensive chemical fertilizers.
Q.35
2 Marks
Suggest two specific dietary modifications required in the daily meal plan of a pregnant woman during her second trimester, stating the physiological reasons.
1. Additional High-Biological-Value Protein & Calcium: [1 Mark]
Modification: Add extra servings of milk, curd, paneer, eggs, pulses, and sprouts.
Reason: The second trimester involves rapid fetal muscular development, expansion of maternal blood volume, growth of placental tissues, and calcification of fetal bones.
2. Enhanced Iron Intake Paired with Vitamin C and Fiber: [1 Mark]
Modification: Consume green leafy vegetables, jaggery, whole grains, and citrus fruits.
Reason: Supports maternal red blood cell expansion and builds fetal hepatic iron stores, while roughage combats pregnancy-induced constipation.
Q.36(A)
Module A • 2 Marks
Why should floors always be cleaned using a damp mop rather than an excessively wet dripping mop? Give two technical reasons.
Technical Reasons: [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]
- Prevents Structural Damage to Flooring: Dripping water seeps into grout joints, unsealed floorboards, or tile seams, causing warping, adhesive failure, wood rot, or unsightly efflorescence marks.
- Effective Soil Removal & Slip Hazard Prevention: A damp mop traps and lifts particulate dust through surface capillary tension, whereas a soaking mop merely sloshes muddy slurry around and leaves pools of water that pose slip-and-fall hazards and foster mold.
Q.37(A)
Module A • 2 Marks
Why is it important to maintain an orderly arrangement of articles and furniture in the home? Give two reasons.
Reasons for Orderly Arrangement: [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]
- Conservation of Time and Energy: Having a designated location for every item avoids frantic searches, reduces frustration, and streamlines daily household workflows.
- Safety and Accident Reduction: Clutter-free floors, clear pathways, and properly positioned furniture prevent trips, collisions, and falls for children and elderly family members.
Q.36(B)
Module B • 2 Marks
What is the purpose of enlarging or reducing an embroidery design before transferring it onto a fabric article?
Purpose of Scaling Embroidery Designs: [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]
- Maintaining Proportion and Harmony: Textiles come in varied dimensions (e.g., a handkerchief vs. a bedsheet border). Scaling ensures the motif fits the target area proportionally without looking crowded or lost.
- Fabric and Thread Compatibility: Fine fabrics and delicate threads require smaller, detailed motifs, whereas heavier fabrics (canvas, linen) require enlarged outlines to accommodate thicker embroidery yarns.
Q.37(B)
Module B • 2 Marks
Why is tying a visible knot at the beginning of embroidery thread discouraged by professional embroiderers? What is the correct method to anchor the thread?
Why Knots Should Be Avoided: [1 Mark]
Knots form unsightly, bulky lumps on the reverse side of the work that show through fine or sheer fabrics, interfere with smooth pressing/ironing, and can work loose during laundering, unraveling the stitches.
Correct Anchoring Methods: [1 Mark]
- Running / Backstitch Method: Take 2 to 3 tiny running stitches directly on the line of design that will be covered by the surface embroidery.
- Waste Knot Method: Tie a knot placed temporarily outside the design area, stitch over the thread tail on the reverse side, and snip away the waste knot flush with the fabric once secure.
Section B
Short Answer Questions (Q38–Q41)
[4 × 3 = 12 Marks]
Q.38
3 Marks
(i) Identify any two distinct types of physical disabilities and explain one major everyday functional challenge associated with each.
OR
(ii) Discuss how formal education empowers an adolescent girl to grow into a more competent mother and family decision-maker.
Option (i) Solution: Two Physical Disabilities and Challenges: [1.5 + 1.5 = 3 Marks]
1. Locomotor / Orthopedic Disability:
Nature: Impairment of the skeletal system, joints, or muscles (e.g., due to polio, cerebral palsy, or limb amputation).
Functional Challenge: Facing architectural barriers such as stairs, high curbs, or narrow doorways, restricting independent mobility and participation in work or school.
2. Visual Impairment (Low Vision / Total Blindness):
Nature: Partial or complete loss of sight that cannot be corrected with conventional spectacles.
Functional Challenge: Difficulties in spatial navigation, independent travel in unfamiliar environments, reading standard print text, and accessing non-verbal social cues.
Option (ii) Solution: How Education Empowers a Girl as a Mother: [1 × 3 = 3 Marks]
- Improved Health and Nutritional Management: An educated mother understands balanced meal planning, infant weaning, growth charts, and immunization schedules, which lowers child mortality and prevents malnutrition.
- Child Cognitive Development & Academic Support: Educated mothers stimulate early language, supervise schoolwork, and provide supportive, egalitarian home environments.
- Financial Autonomy and Prudent Family Planning: Education equips women with earning potential, financial literacy, and the confidence to make informed reproductive choices.
Q.39
3 Marks
(i) Explain how lace fabrics are constructed and mention two principal methods of producing lace.
OR
(ii) In the study of knitted textile fabrics, explain what is meant by 'Courses' and 'Wales', and describe how they influence fabric stretch and drape.
Option (i) Solution: Lace Construction: [3 Marks]
Definition: Lace is an ornamental openwork textile fabric characterized by intricate patterned holes and motifs created by twisting, looping, braiding, or knotting threads together without using a solid warp-and-weft weave structure. [1 Mark]
Two Principal Construction Methods: [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]
- Bobbin Lace: Produced by twisting and crossing multiple threads wound on wooden bobbins over a printed pattern pinned to a firm pillow.
- Machine-Made Lace (Raschel / Leavers): Industrial high-speed jacquard knitting or lace looms that interlock threads to replicate traditional handmade patterns on an economical commercial scale.
Option (ii) Solution: Courses and Wales in Knitted Fabrics: [1.5 + 1.5 = 3 Marks]
1. Wales (Vertical Columns):
Wales are continuous columns of interlocking loops running lengthwise down the fabric (analogous to the warp direction in weaving). The density of wales per inch governs crosswise tension and vertical stability.
2. Courses (Horizontal Rows):
Courses are continuous rows of yarn loops running crosswise from side to side (analogous to the weft direction). The curved loop configuration allows knitted fabrics to stretch and conform comfortably to body contours without restricting movement.
Q.40
3 Marks
When purchasing ready-made garments from a retail showroom, what specific quality indicators should a consumer inspect regarding (a) seams and stitching, and (b) fasteners?
(a) Quality Indicators for Seams and Stitching: [1.5 Marks]
- Stitch Density & Uniformity: Stitches should be even, unbroken, appropriately tensioned (no puckering, dropped stitches, or looping), with 10 to 12 stitches per inch.
- Seam Allowance & Edge Finishing: There should be adequate internal seam allowance (at least 1.5 cm) to allow future adjustments. Raw fabric edges should be neatly overlocked or pinked to prevent fraying.
- Stress Reinforcement: Pockets, crotches, and side slits should feature reinforced double stitching or bar-tacking.
(b) Quality Indicators for Fasteners (Buttons, Zips, Snaps): [1.5 Marks]
- Secure Attachment & Alignment: Buttons must be sewn securely (preferably with a thread shank for thick fabrics) and aligned with well-finished buttonholes.
- Smooth Zipper Operation: Zippers should open and close smoothly without snagging fabric, with secure top and bottom stops.
- Rust Resistance: Metallic fasteners must be rust-proof (brass, plastic, or coated alloys) to avoid staining during washes.
Q.41(A)
Module A • 3 Marks
Outline the correct procedure for cleaning a natural coir floor mat/carpet, and state two essential precautions to avoid damaging the coir fibers.
Cleaning Procedure: [2 Marks]
- Daily Dry Soil Removal: Take the coir mat outdoors and shake it thoroughly to dislodge embedded dust, or use a stiff-bristled broom / heavy-suction vacuum cleaner.
- Spot Treatment: Blot spills immediately with an absorbent towel. Dab stubborn spots using a damp sponge dipped in a mild, neutral soap solution.
- Deodorizing: Sprinkle dry baking soda periodically, let it sit for 20 minutes to absorb trapped odors, and vacuum clean.
Two Essential Precautions: [1 Mark]
- Never Soak in Water: Coir is a highly absorbent cellulose fiber; soaking causes swelling, permanent water stains, shrinkage, and fungal rot.
- Avoid Harsh Alkalies / Bleaches: Strong chlorine bleaches or high-pH detergents weaken the lignified fibers and cause discoloration.
Q.41(B)
Module B • 3 Marks
Explain what is meant by metallic threads in creative embroidery, and describe two traditional metallic wires used in Indian embroidery traditions like Zardozi.
Meaning and Significance of Metallic Threads: [1 Mark]
Metallic threads are decorative yarns made from drawn gold, silver, or electroplated alloy foils wrapped around a silk/cotton core, or modern metallized synthetic filaments (Lurex). They impart shimmer, rich texture, and visual opulence to ceremonial and bridal textiles.
Two Traditional Metallic Wires: [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]
- Badla / Zari Strip: A fine, flat wire produced by flattening drawn electroplated metal. It is threaded through sheer fabrics to create delicate motifs, or couched flat onto fabric surfaces.
- Gijai / Salma: A hollow, circular spring-like wire created by winding thin metallic wire tightly into flexible coils. It is cut into small bead-like segments and sewn like tubular beads to create raised, sculptural relief work.
Section B
Long Answer Questions (Q42–Q43)
[2 × 5 = 10 Marks]
Q.42
5 Marks
(i) Explain five reasons why comprehensive sex and reproductive health education is crucial for adolescents, and discuss the supportive role parents should play during this transition.
OR
(ii) Compare the cognitive characteristics of an adolescent with those of a middle-childhood child, using Jean Piaget's stages of cognitive development.
Option (i) Solution: Sex Education & Parental Guidance: [5 Marks]
Part A: Five Reasons Why Sex Education is Essential for Adolescents: [3 Marks]
- Demystifying Pubertal Changes: Rapid physical transformations (voice change, menarche, growth spurts) can cause anxiety and body shame if not understood as normal biological milestones.
- Prevention of STIs and HIV: Accurate scientific guidance clears myths and teaches protection, personal responsibility, and healthy boundaries.
- Preventing Teenage Pregnancy: Educating adolescents about conception and contraception prevents unintended pregnancies and unsafe abortions.
- Promoting Respect, Consent, and Safety: Equips teens to recognize unhealthy behaviors, resist peer pressure, and understand bodily autonomy and consent.
- Countering Digital Misinformation: Unfiltered internet content often distorts reality. Formal education provides balanced perspectives on human relationships and emotional maturity.
Part B: Role of Parents: [2 Marks]
- Open and Non-Judgmental Communication: Answering questions honestly without embarrassment, fear, or scolding.
- Modeling Healthy Relationships: Demonstrating mutual respect, gender equality, and emotional maturity within the home.
- Guidance on Values: Helping adolescents navigate peer pressure and make responsible life decisions.
Option (ii) Solution: Cognitive Comparison (Middle Childhood vs. Adolescence): [5 Marks]
| Cognitive Dimension |
Middle Childhood (7–11 yrs) — Concrete Operational [2.5 Marks] |
Adolescence (11+ yrs) — Formal Operational [2.5 Marks] |
| Nature of Thought |
Tied to concrete, tangible objects and direct real-world experiences. Struggles with hypothetical "what if" scenarios. |
Capable of abstract, hypothetical-deductive reasoning; can reflect on justice, ethics, love, and future ideals. |
| Problem-Solving |
Relies largely on empirical trial-and-error with physical manipulation. |
Formulates hypotheses, isolates variables systematically, and tests solutions logically like a scientist. |
| Metacognition |
Limited insight into one's own thought processes; unaware of cognitive biases. |
Examines one's own thoughts ("thinking about thinking"), evaluates perspectives, and detects contradictions. |
| Egocentrism |
Gradually overcomes perceptual egocentrism via social school play. |
Manifests as the Imaginary Audience (feeling constantly watched) and Personal Fable (feeling unique/invulnerable). |
Q.43
5 Marks
(i) Enlist the six fundamental Consumer Rights guaranteed under the Consumer Protection Act, and elaborate on the Right to Safety with real-world examples.
OR
(ii) Identify five major problems faced by consumers in the modern marketplace, and discuss comprehensive remedial measures for any two of them.
Option (i) Solution: Consumer Rights & Right to Safety: [5 Marks]
Six Fundamental Consumer Rights (CPA 2019): [3 Marks]
- Right to Safety: Protection against goods and services hazardous to life and property.
- Right to Information: Access to accurate details regarding quality, quantity, purity, standard, and price.
- Right to Choose: Assurance of access to a competitive variety of goods and services at fair prices.
- Right to be Heard: Assurance that consumer interests receive due consideration in appropriate forums.
- Right to Seek Redressal: The right to seek legal remedies, replacement, refund, or compensation against unfair trade practices.
- Right to Consumer Education: The right to acquire knowledge and skills to be an informed consumer.
Elaboration on the Right to Safety: [2 Marks]
Consumers have a right to insist on quality assurance before purchase. Dangerous electrical appliances, substandard gas cylinders, or contaminated pharmaceuticals can cause injury or death. Manufacturers are legally obligated to test products under national standards. Standard certification marks include:
• ISI Mark (BIS): On electrical appliances, LPG cylinders, and helmets.
• FSSAI Logo & License: On packaged food products.
• AGMARK: On agricultural commodities like ghee, honey, and mustard oil.
Under the Consumer Protection Act 2019, Product Liability provisions hold manufacturers and sellers liable to pay compensation for harm caused by defective products.
Option (ii) Solution: Consumer Problems and Solutions: [5 Marks]
Five Major Problems in the Marketplace: [2.5 Marks]
- Food Adulteration: Addition of cheap/toxic fillers (e.g., starch in milk, metanil yellow in turmeric) or extraction of essential components.
- Misleading Advertisements & Deceptive Packaging: Exaggerated claims (e.g., instant weight loss) or oversized boxes with excessive slack fill.
- Faulty Weights and Measures: Tampered electronic balances, magnetized pans, or measuring with cartons included.
- Spurious and Substandard Goods: Sale of counterfeit brands, expired items, or uncertified electrical goods.
- Overcharging & Deficient After-Sales Service: Charging above MRP, hidden fees, and refusing warranty assistance.
Detailed Remedial Measures for Two Problems: [2.5 Marks]
1. Remedial Measures for Food Adulteration:
Consumers should always purchase packaged goods carrying standard certification marks (FSSAI, AGMARK) from reputable vendors and demand an official cash memo. Simple home tests (DART manual by FSSAI) can detect common adulterants. Any suspected adulteration should be reported to the local Food Safety Officer or consumer redressal forums.
2. Remedial Measures for Misleading Advertisements:
Consumers should critically evaluate advertising claims rather than blindly trusting celebrity endorsements. Deceptive claims can be reported to the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) or the Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI). Retaining purchase receipts, warranty cards, and printed advertisement brochures provides legal evidence for consumer court proceedings.